Can the Almighty's saying be interpreted: "Say, 'Are the blind and the seeing equal? Do you not then reflect?'" as the blind representing one who does not know the Unseen, and the seeing representing one who knows the Unseen, within the context of the verse that describes the Prophet as knowing only what has been revealed to him?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Allah Almighty likens the disbeliever to a blind person due to his lack of guidance, and this is not exclusive to the knowledge of the Unseen. The verse is the conclusion of the argument and a reinforcement of the discourse, where it likens the state of one who does not comprehend evidence to a blind person, and the state of one who discerns truths to a sighted person. This is a representation of the condition of polytheists and believers, to make known which of the two states is more worthy of adoption.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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