Is fulfilling the parents' request for divorce considered an injustice to the husband and to oneself, especially since the reason for the dispute is the unavailability of the agreed-upon ملكiya (ownership) home, and the husband has sincerely repented of his previous behaviors?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the father stipulates to the husband that he must transfer ownership of a house to the daughter, then the husband must fulfill the condition unless the wife waives it. In this case, the father has no right to interfere. It is not permissible for the father to incite his daughter to divorce. If the wife does not waive the condition, she has the right to annul the marriage through the ruler. However, it is advised not to annul the marriage if the husband repents, as matters of ownership and leasing are among the fleeting enjoyments of this transient world.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/97223
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 97223
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy