What is the ruling regarding a husband telling his wife: "If you tell my family, you are divorced and Haram for me"? Is it considered a divorce or an oath? And if it is a divorce, is it considered a single revocable divorce or an irrevocable divorce?
To begin with, the husband was obligated to repent from drinking alcohol. The husband made his wife's divorce and her prohibition contingent upon her informing him of his alcohol consumption, and she did inform him. There are two possibilities for this issue:
First: If he intended to prevent and threaten his wife, the majority of jurists hold that the contingent divorce and prohibition take effect. Some scholars, however, view it as an oath that only requires an expiation for breaking an oath, and no divorce occurs.
Second: If he intended the divorce to occur upon the fulfillment of the condition, then the divorce takes effect with his statement: "divorced." His statement: "you are forbidden to me" would either be an affirmation or a separate divorce. The number of divorces he intended would occur; if he did not intend a specific number, then one revocable divorce occurs. It is advisable to consult the court.
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