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Is the wife still under the authority of her husband after a revocable divorce, knowing that no intercourse has occurred between them after the first divorce, which took place two years ago, and the wife is still with her family?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The first divorce is revocable, and the revocation is valid even if the wife is absent or has not been intimate after the divorce. Revocation is the husband's right as long as the revocably divorced wife is within her waiting period ('iddah). It does not require the wife's presence, knowledge, consent, or the consent of her guardian. The wife being with her family does not prevent her reinstatement or her remaining under the husband's marital bond.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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