Is the wife still under the authority of her husband after a revocable divorce, knowing that no intercourse has occurred between them after the first divorce, which took place two years ago, and the wife is still with her family?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The first divorce is revocable, and the revocation is valid even if the wife is absent or has not been intimate after the divorce. Revocation is the husband's right as long as the revocably divorced wife is within her waiting period ('). It does not require the wife's presence, knowledge, consent, or the consent of her guardian. The wife being with her family does not prevent her reinstatement or her remaining under the husband's marital bond.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/127827
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 127827
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy