Does a divorce occur if a man says, "If I marry so-and-so, she is divorced," and does the ruling differ if the statement is general or specific to a particular woman? What is the most preponderant opinion on this matter?

The jurists differed regarding someone who says, "If I marry so-and-so, she is divorced." The Shafi'is and Hanbalis held that the divorce does not occur if he marries her. This view is supported by the evidence from the hadith: "There is no divorce for the son of Adam concerning what he does not possess," and the saying of Ibn Abbas: "It is nothing, for divorce belongs only to one who possesses [the marital bond]." This is also the view adopted by the majority of the Companions and the Tabi'in. As for the Hanafis and Malikis, they maintained that the divorce does occur.