Is a wife divorced if she travels after her husband tells her, "If you travel, you are divorced and no longer under my marital responsibility"? Is the husband's intention in divorce considered legally valid by the four imams, especially for those who marry according to the Hanafi madhhab and deem divorce obligatory according to the madhhab of Ibn Taymiyyah? Is a divorce issued by American courts recognized if authenticated by the Egyptian embassy, in the absence of Sharia courts and the refusal of mosques to grant a wife khul' without the husband's consent?

The majority of scholars hold that a conditional divorce takes effect when the condition is met, regardless of whether the husband intended divorce, threat, or prevention. This is the prevailing fatwa. However, some scholars, like Ibn Taymiyyah, are of the view that if the husband did not intend to effect a divorce but rather a threat or prevention, then the divorce does not occur, and he is obligated to pay an expiation for breaking an oath.

As for divorce in non-Islamic courts, it is not considered valid on its own. Islamic centers act in place of Sharia courts when they are unavailable. If a man divorces his wife Islamically, there is no harm in documenting it before secular courts. If the spouses dispute over divorce, Islamic centers undertake to resolve the matter. A civil divorce alone does not terminate the marriage Islamically; rather, recourse must be made to Islamic centers to complete it from the Sharia perspective.