Is the understanding correct that perfumes and products containing alcohol are permissible if a large quantity of them does not intoxicate, knowing that these products often do not intoxicate when drunk, and is it permissible to adopt the view of their purity despite the jurisprudential difference of opinion?

There is a difference of opinion regarding the impurity of alcohol (khamr). The majority of scholars hold that it is inherently impure (najis al-ayn). This is a permissible difference of opinion, and there is no blame on one who follows trustworthy scholars who state its purity, such as Shaykh Ibn Uthaymeen.

The issue of the difficulty in avoiding alcohol in perfumes is exaggerated, as it is possible to avoid it and use alcohol-free alternatives. The view that alcohol is impure is based on the Almighty's saying: "Indeed, intoxicants, gambling, [sacrificing to] stone altars, and divining arrows are but defilement from the work of Satan." As for vaginal secretions, there is no evidence for their impurity, and the default ruling for them is purity.

Whoever is confident in the opinion of alcohol's purity, there is no blame on her. However, the preponderant fatwa is its impurity, as stated by the majority, and this is the most cautious and absolving for one's responsibility. The mixture of alcohol with other liquids renders them impure, unless it is completely consumed within them and no trace of it remains.