Does a divorce count if the husband swore by divorce that his wife should not go to the wedding, but she went only to greet a sick woman with the intention of not attending the wedding?

If a man conditions his wife's divorce on her doing something, and she does what he forbade her from doing, the majority of scholars hold that she is divorced immediately upon doing so. The most preponderant opinion is that the divorce does not occur unless his intention was to effect a divorce. However, if his intention was merely to intimidate and rebuke, then it does not occur.

In the event that the husband intended divorce with this condition, the husband's intention is considered in determining the occurrence of divorce. So, if his intention was that she should not go to the wedding place at all, then divorce occurs even if the wife went for other purposes. But if his intention was to prevent the wife from participating in the wedding without preventing her from being present at the place, then divorce does not occur merely by her going to greet her female relatives, because of the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "Indeed, actions are by intentions, and indeed for every person is what he intended." And the intention specifies the general wording.