What is the ruling on one who says: "I have divorced the world, and all that is in it"?
If someone says, "I have divorced the world and what is in it," and does not intend to divorce his wife, then his wife is not divorced, because the phrase is not explicit in that, and its meaning refers to asceticism in the world. However, if he intends to divorce his wife with this phrase, then the divorce occurs, because it is a metaphorical expression by which divorce takes place if he intends it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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