Is the wife's saying, "I am divorced," sufficient for the divorce to take effect if the matter of her divorce is in her hand according to the marriage contract, or must she say, "I have divorced myself," or, "I am divorced from you"?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on making the wife's infallibility (right to divorce) a condition at the time of the marriage contract. Some have held that it is impermissible and invalid because it contradicts the essence of the contract. Assuming the validity of this condition, scholars have also differed on the ruling regarding the woman's statement, when given the choice, "I am divorced." Some considered it a valid divorce, while others did not. Due to this disagreement, it is advisable to consult the Sharia court or Islamic centers.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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