Does divorce occur in the following cases: 1. Upon conditioning divorce on going out, and the going out occurring, while doubting the husband's intention of divorce or prevention? 2. Upon the spouses agreeing to prohibit the wife to her husband by eating a specific thing, then the husband eats that thing? 3. When the husband writes on marriage websites that he is divorced, and says that to female members of the site, with his intention to divorce his wife in case of compatibility, and not the actual occurrence of divorce? And does divorce recur with repeated registration on these sites?

A husband's statement to his wife, "If you go out, consider yourself divorced," is an explicit suspension of divorce on her going out. This effects a divorce upon the occurrence of the suspended condition (i.e., her going out), and this is the relied-upon opinion.

However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him were of the opinion that swearing by divorce and suspending it without the intention of effecting a divorce, but rather with the intention of emphasizing, preventing, or encouraging something, does not effect a divorce. Instead, the one who swore must offer an expiation for breaking an oath if the suspended condition occurs.

As for a wife suspending a prohibition on something, this does not result in divorce or zihar (injurious assimilation). However, she must offer an expiation for breaking an oath if the suspended condition occurs.

Regarding a husband falsely informing his wife of her divorce, the preponderant opinion among us is that divorce does not occur thereby.