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The question

Does a divorce occur if a husband falsely swears by divorce, intending in his heart something other than what he uttered, while continuing the action he swore to abandon?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Swearing by divorce is a conditional divorce. So, whoever swears to something and then does it, or does not do what he swore to do, he is breaking his oath, and divorce takes place according to the majority of scholars. If the breaking of the oath occurs three times, the wife becomes irrevocably divorced (baynunah kubra). However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah differed on this matter, holding the view that whoever made divorce conditional without intending to effect it, but rather for threatening or preventing, is only required to pay an expiation for an oath. Because the issue is subject to scholarly disagreement, it is advisable to refer to the court to rule on it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
63427
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy