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The question

Does a divorce that has not been approved by a judge or attended by an authorized official take effect if this was stipulated after the marriage contract?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the divorce is issued with an explicit pronouncement, such as: "You are divorced," or by an implicit statement accompanied by the intention, then it takes effect and the aforementioned condition does not impact it. However, if the divorce is made conditional upon the will of another person, such as saying: "You are divorced if the judge wills," then the divorce does not take effect unless the will is actualized. And if that person dies, or becomes mute, or is absent before he wills, then the divorce does not take effect. A Muslim should avoid divorce as much as possible.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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