Is the salary received by an employee from a governmental body, where there is no work available for him—due to sectarian and partisan discrimination preventing him from being assigned tasks—lawful or unlawful, given his necessity to go out to work and earn a livelihood?
The government employee is a private contractor, and his benefits during the period of hire belong to his employer. Therefore, he is not allowed to perform any other work during official working hours except with the permission of the one who holds the authority to grant permission. He is entitled to full pay if he makes himself available for work, even if he does not perform any task.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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