What is the ruling on conditioning a wife's divorce upon her ceasing work for one year, given the husband's rights are being forfeited due to her continued employment despite the aforementioned need being absent?
The question is vague. What is understood from it is that the husband made his wife's divorce conditional on her not leaving her job for a certain period.
If the wife leaves her job for that period, the divorce does not occur.
If she does not leave her job, the majority of scholars believe that the divorce takes place. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah holds that if the husband did not intend for the divorce to occur by the condition, but rather intended emphasis or threat, then the divorce does not occur, but he is obliged to pay an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat yamin).
The wife must obey her husband in what is right. It is his right that she does not go out to work without his permission, unless she stipulated that in the marriage contract.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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