Is a divorce pronounced by a man to a worker, saying: "By divorce, you shall take the money," effective if the worker refused to take the money, knowing that the man did not intend divorce but rather a threat?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The relied-upon is that if a man divorces his wife by breaking his oath, he may take her back before her waiting period () ends, provided that this divorce does not complete the third divorce. However, according to some scholars, such as Ibn Taymiyyah, if the oath was intended for threat or to compel payment of a wage, and divorce was not intended, then no divorce occurs; rather, he is obligated to offer an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat ). If the oath was intended as an act of generosity, then neither divorce nor expiation is required.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/161553
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 161553
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy