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The question

Is a person who engaged in foreplay of sodomy but was unable to complete it due to a defect in the person being sodomized held accountable for the sin of sodomy?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Harboring the intention to commit a sin, coupled with determination to do so, is a sin, even if it falls short of the actual deed. Thus, the questioner will not be held accountable for the act of sodomy itself, but rather for its مقدمات (preliminary steps), if they occurred. However, if he did nothing at all, there is no sin upon him. Nevertheless, he is not equal to one who abandoned it out of fear of Allah. Firm resolve [to sin] is recorded as a bad deed, even if the sin is not committed. But if he abandons it out of fear of Allah, it is recorded as a good deed. Fleeting thoughts that do not settle in the soul are not recorded.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
47558
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy