Why did the Prophet (peace be upon him) not explicitly address the ruling on masturbation (istimna') as either forbidden or reprehensible, even though it existed in the pre-Islamic era (Jahiliyyah)? And what is the correct analogical deduction (qiyas) if there is no explicit text concerning it, taking into account the noble verse: "But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors"?

Masturbation is forbidden, based on the generality of the verse: {But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors}. And whoever masturbates with their hand has sought beyond what Allah has made lawful, thus they are among the transgressors according to the clear text of this noble verse. This is the opinion of Al-Shafi'i, Malik, and others. Imam Ahmad disagreed with them, arguing for its permissibility by analogy with phlebotomy and cupping. However, this analogy contradicts the apparent generality of the Quran.