Does not the silence of the Sharia regarding the prohibition of masturbation indicate its permissibility, especially since the default for matters is permissibility, and His (the Almighty’s) saying: "And those who guard their private parts Except from their wives or those their right hands possess, for indeed, they are not to be blamed – But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors" has been interpreted as referring to adultery, in addition to the fact that masturbation may help in avoiding adultery and quenching arousal, and assuming there are negative health effects, would not religion have explicitly forbidden them?

The prohibition of masturbation is the view of the majority of scholars, who cite the Almighty's saying: "And those who guard their private parts, Except from their wives or those their right hands possess, for indeed, they will not be blamed – But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors." Interpreting the verse to mean that only fornication is prohibited and nothing else contradicts the stance of the majority of scholars. The verse, in its generality, indicates the prohibition of masturbation, because whoever resorts to it has sought beyond what Allah has made lawful, and thus they are among the transgressors. Ash-Shafi'i, Malik, and others used this verse as evidence to prohibit masturbation, and they considered the analogy that permits masturbation under the pretext of expelling excess bodily fluid to be an analogy that contradicts the apparent generality of the Quran, and therefore it is invalid.