Does the supplication mentioned in the question fall under the category of allusions to divorce, and what intention is required when supplicating with it, and does divorce occur through supplication?

"Metaphorical divorces" (kinayat al-talaq) refer to any utterance that signifies separation and conveys the meaning of divorce. However, a divorce is not enacted by them unless the husband intends it. If the husband utters a word that could imply separation or something else, and he does not intend divorce by it, then his divorce does not take place, by agreement of the jurists. The supplication (du'a) mentioned does not contain any of the metaphors of divorce.