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The question

Does the divorce, which the questioner made conditional on the presence of a family he dislikes by saying: "If any of them come, then the divorce paper is with my wife, and she is unlawful to me," take effect if one of the female relatives of this family attends?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

What you issued regarding divorcing your wife and forbidding her from attending any gathering with that family depends on your intention. If the person you intended to forbid attends, then your oath is broken; otherwise, it is not. Your statement "the divorce paper is with my wife" is an indirect expression (kinaya) that depends on your intention. If you did not intend divorce by it, then it does not occur. Forbidding your wife (tahrim) depends on intention according to the most authoritative opinion. Anger does not negate legal responsibility unless it completely removes consciousness. We advise consulting a Sharia court or scholars regarding matters of divorce to clarify affairs, and the necessity of affection among Muslims and relatives, and to beware of anger, and to avoid swearing by divorce or prohibition to solve problems.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
169027
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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