Does the husband's statement to his wife: "I can do without you, but I cannot do without my family; I can forsake you, but I cannot forsake them," constitute a divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
We advise against succumbing to ওয়াসवास (obsessive doubts) regarding divorce, as it is a widespread evil that causes great distress. The utterance that effects a divorce must be explicit (صريح) or allusive (كناية). An allusive expression does not divorce the wife unless the husband intended to effect a divorce thereby. What the aforementioned husband uttered is not an allusive expression of divorce; at most, it indicates that he could dispense with his wife, and it is not understood therefrom that he intended divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 122118
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