Is a divorce pronounced by a man suffering from psychosis valid, especially when he claimed he uttered it falsely, and his strong presumption was that he was not fully conscious when he uttered it, and then he later informed his wife that he had two previous divorces?
If psychosis deprives the patient of their intellect and will, then their divorce is not effective. However, if the patient acts aware of their actions and is not deprived of their will, then their divorce is effective. If you uttered the divorce while overcome in your intellect, then your divorce is not effective. But if you uttered it while aware of what you were saying, and you falsely claimed to have divorced your wife, then the preponderant opinion is that the divorce does not take place in this situation, from a religious perspective. It is preferable to present the matter to trusted scholars.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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