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The question

Is a wife considered forbidden to her husband based on his saying, "I do not want you, go to your brother's house and your paper will reach you," and his saying, "divorced twice," and his saying, "divorced" for the third time, while he claims he intended the word "when" before the last one?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20262 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

1. The husband's statement, "I don't want you, go to your brother's house," is a metaphorical expression of divorce. If he intended divorce by it, then it is effective; otherwise, it is not, and his intention is accepted.

2. The phrase "your divorce paper will reach you" is merely a promise and does not obligate anything.

3. It is not permissible for the wife to seek divorce without a legitimate excuse, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without any harm to her, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden for her."

4. If the divorce pronouncement is "You are divorced, you are divorced," then if he intended two divorces or did not intend anything, two divorces are effective. If he intended one and its affirmation, then one divorce is effective. However, if it is "You are divorced, divorced," then if he intended to establish the divorce with the first phrase only and made what followed an affirmation, or did not intend anything, one divorce is effective. If he intended to establish the divorce with both phrases, then two divorces are effective.

5. If the husband says, "You are not divorced," and intended to negate divorce, then no divorce occurs, and his statement is accepted. However, if the wife is certain that he said, "You are divorced," and it was the third, then it is not permissible for her to allow him access to her.

6. Three divorces result in a major separation, and the wife becomes a stranger to him, and she is not lawful for him until she marries another husband and then he divorces her or dies. If the divorce is less than three, he may take her back before the iddah (waiting period) expires.

7. The view of Sheikh al-Islam is that divorce does not occur during menstruation, postpartum bleeding, or multiple pronouncements during a period of purity, or during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred, or before a re-marriage or renewal of the contract.

8. It is recommended to consult the Sharia court or knowledgeable scholars to clarify what the husband pronounced due to the complexity of the issue.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy