Does divorce take place on the first day of menstruation, knowing that there has been no conjugal relations between the spouses for a year? If it does, is this menstrual period counted as part of the waiting period (iddah)? Is the waiting period (iddah) even obligatory for a woman whose husband has not had conjugal relations with her for a year? If the divorce takes place and it is an irrevocable divorce (bain) because it is the third occurrence, is this menstrual period counted as part of the waiting period (iddah)? What is the ruling on a divorced woman leaving her home to attend to her needs and the needs of her children during the waiting period (iddah) due to having no relatives?

A woman is not permitted to travel to marry a man she corresponded with over the internet; such correspondence is forbidden, and its expiation is repentance. Menstruation is not considered to have begun unless it reaches the visible area when relieving oneself. If it has not reached that area, then a divorce issued during that time is valid. If this divorce completes the three pronouncements, then the woman becomes unlawful for her husband until she marries another man, he consummates the marriage with her, and then he divorces her. The menstrual cycle after the divorce is counted as part of the waiting period (iddah), and the iddah is completed with two subsequent menstrual periods. It is permissible for a woman observing iddah to go out for her needs, provided she adheres to the hijab, avoids adornment and perfume, and refrains from mingling with men.