Does divorce take effect on the first day of menstruation, and if so, does this period count towards the waiting period (iddah), and is a waiting period (iddah) obligatory for a woman whose husband has not consummated the marriage with her for a year?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
It is necessary to draw attention to the impermissibility of a woman socializing with a non-mahram man, and her traveling without a mahram. The marriage contract is valid if it takes place in the presence of the guardian and witnesses, even if it is not officially documented. The divorce of a menstruating woman is effective according to the majority of scholars, even if the husband is sinful, and the menstrual period during which the divorce occurred is not counted as part of the waiting period (iddah). The iddah becomes obligatory upon the establishment of sexual intercourse or valid seclusion.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 99158
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