Does the expiation for an oath and divorce take effect upon a husband if he swore by divorce that he would never enter his brother's house for the rest of his life, and he told his wife, "Everything lawful to me becomes unlawful to me," and then he wished to reconcile with his brother, knowing that their marriage contract has been concluded but consummation has not yet occurred?

If the husband entered his brother's house in the manner sworn upon, a divorce would occur according to the majority of scholars. If the breach of the oath occurred before consummation or valid seclusion, the marital bond would be severed, and the husband's statement: "Everything that was lawful for me becomes unlawful for me" would be nullified. However, if valid seclusion had occurred, his statement would be considered valid. Ibn Taymiyyah held that a conditional divorce does not occur if it was not intended, and the husband can retract his condition. Due to the various possibilities in this matter, it is advisable to consult a Sharia court or trustworthy scholars.