To what extent is the statement valid regarding the ritual purity of madhy (pre-seminal fluid), based on it being a genital discharge rather than urine, and by analogy with the ritual purity of maniy (semen), considering that some scholars deem it a part of maniy, while also taking into account the jurisprudential views that did not consider it impure, and the prophetic traditions that indicate sufficiency with ablution (wudu’) and washing the penis from it?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
"The disagreement regarding the ruling on madhy (pre-seminal fluid) is well-established, and anyone claiming a consensus (ijma') on its impurity might be referring to the agreement of the majority on this matter. As for preferring its purity, that is not accepted. The حسن (hasan) hadith mentioned by the questioner is sufficient evidence for its impurity, as it explicitly states the need to sprinkle water on whatever it touches."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/58301