Does the present tense verb, which does not contain an indicative sign of the future, such as His — the Almighty’s — saying: (Falsehood cannot approach it from before it or from behind it), indicate the future? And what is the best way to deal with this question?

The verbs (yalid - begets) and (yulad - begotten) are in the present tense, but the entry of (lam - لم) upon them in the noble verse reverses their tense to the past. (Lam) is a particle of negation, jussive, and reversal, so it does not negate the future. This has been explained by the fact that Surat Al-Ikhlas came as a refutation of their statement "Allah has begotten" which implies the occurrence of a child in the past. As for the negating (la - لا) in His saying, the Almighty, (falsehood shall not come to it), it indicates the negation of the verb in the future without the need for future particles like (sa - س) and (sawfa - سوف). The grammatical rule for the present tense is that it indicates the present and future, but (lam - لم) and (lamma - لما) reverse its tense to the past, while the (lam of emphasis - لام التوكيد) and the negating (ma - ما) specify it for the present, and (sa - س) and (sawfa - سوف) specify it for the future.