Is giving the first wife a property she owns, after the husband marries a third wife, considered an injustice to the children of the deceased second wife, given that it is to appease the first wife after the husband married twice after her?

Scholars differed on the ruling regarding equality among wives in gifts and grants. The Shafi'is, Hanbalis, and the more apparent view among the Malikis held that it is not obligatory, and that there is no sin upon the husband if he bestows more upon one of them after fulfilling the necessities for each. Some scholars, however, maintained the obligation of equality in this regard.

The practiced fatwa (religious edict) is the obligation of justice among wives in gifts and grants, based on the generality of the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "Whoever has two wives and inclines to one of them over the other, will come on the Day of Resurrection with one of his sides drooping."

Based on this, your gift to one wife without the others is impermissible. You must give the other wives the same amount you gave the first, unless they waive their rights and are content with what you gave the first. Your giving each of them the same as you gave the first does not constitute injustice to the children, as the money is your property. However, the feelings of orphaned children should be considered, and wealth should not be disbursed to others in a way that neglects them.