Does the same ruling regarding the obligation to return a gift given by a father to his son during his lifetime, if his other siblings were not given similar gifts, by including it in the inheritance after the father's death, apply to a wife who was given something by her husband during his lifetime without his other wives receiving similar gifts?

A man is obligated to be just among his wives in terms of lodging, and justice is required among them in everything possible to be just in, such as gifts, expenses, and intimacy. This is based on the saying of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "Whoever has two wives and inclines to one of them over the other, will come on the Day of Resurrection with one of his sides leaning."

If a man favored some of his children in a gift and died before reclaiming it, the majority of scholars hold that the favored child is not obligated to include the gift in the inheritance.

If a man favored one of his wives over the other in a gift and died, we have not found anyone who obligated the favored wife to return the gift to the inheritance.