Is a divorce effective if the husband says to his wife, "If you speak to my family, you will be forbidden to me and divorced," and he intended a past period during which the wife did not speak to his family? Is this considered a conditional divorce or merely an oath? And is it permissible for the wife to speak to the husband's family after that?

Divorce is a serious matter that leads to the disintegration of the family. Divorce is disliked when there is no need for it, and it may be forbidden if it causes harm. As for a man's statement, "If I had spoken to my family, you would be divorced," this is a conditional divorce. If the condition is not met, then no divorce occurs. However, if he intended the future, the divorce takes place according to the majority of scholars, but if he intended a threat, it does not take place according to others. The same ruling applies to the husband's statement, "You are forbidden to me," if he intended divorce; if he intended zihar (a form of Arabian divorce), then it is zihar. It is advisable to refer to Sharia courts or Islamic centers for such matters.