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The question

Is it permissible for a man to have sexual intercourse with his married slave woman?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not permissible for a man to have sexual intercourse with his married slave woman, and whoever does so has committed a forbidden act and deserves to be disciplined (ta'zir); because the married slave woman has become permissible for her husband, and a woman cannot be lawful for two men. Ibn Qudamah mentioned that whoever has intercourse with her incurs sin and deserves ta'zir, and that Imam Ahmad said he should be flogged and not stoned.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
18318
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy