What is the ruling on a Muslim telling a Christian, during a debate, that the verses in the Gospel discussing sex are not the word of God because God is far removed from such matters? Is it considered disbelief to refrain from mentioning a noble prophetic hadith due to people accusing the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) of uttering obscene speech? And is a person held responsible for someone's apostasy due to their mentioning a noble hadith?

Abusive language in the Bible is not from the word of God, and He must be exonerated from that. As for the hadith (definition) in which the word "I made her have intercourse" was mentioned, it was a necessary declaration from the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, in the context of implementing the death penalty on Ma'iz, in order to ensure accurate verification of the justification for the penalty, and to protect lives and preserve honors. This indicates the perfection of the Sharia (definition) and the greatness of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him.

Modesty regarding this word is the default, and it is not permissible to utter it except by the ruler or judge in the context of confirming adultery and similar acts that necessitate the death penalty.

Avoiding the narration of this hadith to the general public is based on their understanding and comprehension, and it may sometimes be better not to narrate it to those who cannot comprehend it.

The discord that may result from narrating such a hadith is not borne by the one who narrated it correctly, because he fulfilled his duty of conveying. Nevertheless, whoever narrates such a hadith should explain its jurisprudence to remove ambiguity and doubt.