Is the amount paid by a father to his son for the purpose of marriage, which the father intends to deduct from the inheritance to achieve equality among the children, considered an obligatory expenditure or a debt to be deducted from the inheritance?

If a father gives one of his children money for their known needs for marriage expenses, there is no blame upon him, and he is not obligated to give the same to his other children. However, if he gives him more than his need, then equality among the children becomes obligatory, by giving the remaining children what the favored one received, or by reclaiming what was taken, if possible. If the father does not equalize and then dies, the gift is affirmed, and the remaining children do not have the right to demand equalization. However, it is recommended for the favored child to return the excess to the heirs.