What is the ruling on allusive divorce if the husband intended divorce with a phrase that does not indicate it, such as "ما شاء الله" (what God wills), then he thought that the divorce had occurred? Does the divorce take effect after he learns the correct Sharia ruling and wishes not to separate from his wife?

The majority of scholars hold that divorce does not occur except through an explicit statement or an allusive expression accompanied by the intention of divorce. Any other words are null and void, even if divorce was intended by them.

And that whoever utters words other than the established pronouncement of divorce or its allusive expressions is not bound by anything, even if he intended divorce, whether he knew the ruling beforehand or came to know it afterwards, and even if he had told people about it, thinking that it was a divorce.