How do we reconcile Allah's saying: {All food was lawful for the Children of Israel except what Israel had made unlawful for himself} with His saying: {And because of the wrongdoing of those who were Jews, We made unlawful for them good things which had been lawful to them}?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The saying of Allah, "All food was lawful for the Children of Israel," means that all edibles were lawful for Jacob, peace be upon him, except what he had forbidden for himself, and that was before the revelation of the Torah.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/61503
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 61503
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy