Does divorce take place by saying "what implies divorce" without explicit wording, with the intention of divorce, whether this occurred for the first time or a second time with similar details?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur by mere intention; rather, it occurs through an explicit verbal pronouncement or through an ambiguous statement accompanied by intention. As for words of promise to divorce, divorce does not occur by them. If you did not utter an explicit divorce or an ambiguous statement with intention, and you spoke words that express a desire for divorce or a promise of it, then divorce has not occurred by that. It is recommended to present the matter to trustworthy scholars for a ruling after clarifying the exact words spoken.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/114199
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 114199
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy