Does uttering the word "tahrim" (prohibition) without intention or purpose mean it is null and void, and that the word "haram" is a common expression with no implications, except for the prohibition of one's wife when intended, and otherwise it means nothing?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband intends a real prohibition (تحريم حقيقي) by the word "tahreem" (prohibition), then whatever he prohibits incurs an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yameen). As for prohibiting his wife, if the husband intends by the word "tahreem": Dhihar, then it is Dhihar; or Ila', then it is Ila'; or divorce, then it is divorce. If he does not intend anything, then he must pay an expiation for an oath. However, if he did not intend prohibition at all, then nothing is incumbent upon him.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/101844
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 101844
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy