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The question

Does uttering the word "haram" [forbidden] cause something to become forbidden if the intention was not to forbid it? And is it considered like a "laghw" [unintentional] oath? What is incumbent upon someone who uttered it without intending to forbid?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars differ on the ruling concerning making lawful things unlawful (taḥrīm al-ḥalāl). Some hold that it is mere idle talk (laghw) and has no consequences, except in the case of making one's wife unlawful. Others maintain that it necessitates an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffārat yamīn). The preponderant view is that expiation is obligatory, because Allah Himself referred to such a prohibition as an oath. As for the word "ḥarramtu" (I have made unlawful) when it means "I will never return to it," it does not entail the intended ruling of prohibition. The decisive factor in oaths is the intention.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
100079
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy