Does uttering the word "haram" [forbidden] cause something to become forbidden if the intention was not to forbid it? And is it considered like a "laghw" [unintentional] oath? What is incumbent upon someone who uttered it without intending to forbid?
Scholars differ on the ruling concerning making lawful things unlawful (taḥrīm al-ḥalāl). Some hold that it is mere idle talk (laghw) and has no consequences, except in the case of making one's wife unlawful. Others maintain that it necessitates an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffārat yamīn). The preponderant view is that expiation is obligatory, because Allah Himself referred to such a prohibition as an oath. As for the word "ḥarramtu" (I have made unlawful) when it means "I will never return to it," it does not entail the intended ruling of prohibition. The decisive factor in oaths is the intention.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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