Is the word "haram" – said with the intention of "it is forbidden for me to get pregnant again" – considered an oath that requires expiation after pregnancy?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The stated formula "" without mentioning what is sworn upon does not constitute a binding oath, because an oath requires mentioning that which is sworn upon. Prohibiting what is lawful with this formula does not obligate the one who swore to abandon it; rather, he must seek forgiveness for prohibiting what Allah has made lawful. Therefore, the questioner must seek forgiveness and is not required to offer expiation because the oath was not binding.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/131414
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 131414
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy