Is a divorce considered to have occurred based on my intention not to slaughter after having sworn to do so, knowing that I have read for Sheikh Ibn Uthaymeen that expediting a suspended divorce does not make it effective?

If the intention behind the oath was to slaughter food for colleagues, without the intention of divorce, then the oath has been fulfilled and no divorce has occurred. The mere intention to divorce, without uttering it, has no consequence. However, if the intention was to feed all colleagues from the slaughtered animal, then the oath has been broken by not inviting some of them, because the one who swears an oath does not fulfill it unless he does all that he swore to do. The intention not to fulfill the oath leads to its breach according to some scholars. As for expediting a conditional divorce, it is when the husband says: "I have expedited that divorce" after making it conditional on something, and this does not expedite the divorce. It must be noted that the permissible oath is by Allah, whereas swearing by divorce is blameworthy and may lead to serious consequences.