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The question

Is the wife sinful if she requests a divorce due to her husband's failure to observe piety and good character, after advising and reproaching him? And does the hadith, "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without any [just] cause, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her," apply to her? And does the same ruling apply to her if she chooses divorce after her husband gives her the choice [to divorce] with insult and humiliation?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband's treatment of his wife deteriorates, and she asks him for a divorce, there is no blame upon her, and she does not fall under the threat mentioned in the : "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without any [valid] reason." The phrase "without any [valid] reason" means not in a state of hardship that compels her to do so, or not having reached a level of harm that makes it difficult for her to seek divorce.

Based on this, if there is a valid reason, such as: beating, immorality, or severe lack of love and intense hatred, then there is no harm in seeking a divorce. However, divorce is not an easy matter, and it should not be resorted to except when all means of reconciliation have failed. It is more appropriate for spouses to stay together and live amicably, overlooking minor mistakes.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
167991
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy