Why did the jinn mention the book of Moses and not the book of Jesus (peace be upon them both), and why were the scriptures of Jesus not mentioned in some verses, such as Allah’s saying: "Indeed, this is in the former scriptures, the scriptures of Abraham and Moses"?

Firstly: The listening of the jinn to the Qur’an is established by Quranic texts, as in Surat Al-Ahqaf, and numerous prophetic hadiths, where they listened to the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, on multiple occasions. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, might not have been aware of their presence on the first occasion.

Secondly: The reason the jinn specifically mentioned the book of Musa (Moses), peace be upon him, in their saying: "Indeed, we have heard a Book revealed after Musa, confirming what was before it, guiding to the truth and to a straight path" is due to several explanations, including: 1. That the jinn who were listening were Jews. 2. That the Injeel (Gospel) came as a completion to the Tawrah (Torah), so the foundation was the Tawrah, and it did not bring a new independent book on its own, whereas the Qur’an came with independent guidance and confirmed what preceded it.

Thirdly: The reason for specifically mentioning the scriptures of Ibrahim (Abraham) and Musa, peace be upon them both, in the Qur’an is that the Arabs knew the law of Ibrahim and called it the Hanafiyyah (monotheistic religion), and the scriptures of Musa were famous among the People of the Book. They might have been the foundational laws from which other laws followed, in addition to the fact that the scriptures of Ibrahim and Musa contained fundamental principles such as no soul bearing the burden of another. Furthermore, the law of Ibrahim was among his descendants, and we are followers of his religion. The mention of Musa's scriptures preceded because of the abundance of guidance and law within them, whereas the scriptures of Ibrahim were only a few words.