What is the ruling of the Sharia on considering two pronouncements of divorce – with the intention of merely silencing the wife, not divorcing her – as a single pronouncement? And which schools of thought do not count a divorce that occurs during menstruation?
A man's statement to his wife, "You are divorced, divorced," is an explicit utterance that effects divorce without the need for intention, and this is by consensus among jurists. If by the second word he intended to initiate another divorce or did not intend anything, then two divorces are binding upon him. However, if he intended to emphasize or merely let his wife hear it, then one divorce is binding upon him. The divorce of a menstruating woman is valid according to the majority of scholars, and this is the most preponderant and authoritative opinion, even though some scholars have dissented. If by the second utterance you intended to make your wife hear it, then two divorces are binding upon you: the first which occurred during menstruation, and the second by repeating the utterance. You may reconcile with your wife as long as she is within her waiting period ('iddah).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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