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Does the divorce that occurred from me, by my saying to my wife, "You are divorced" twice, with her being in menses, and me being very angry and provoked, given that she was the one who asked for the divorce, count? And how many divorces are counted in this case? And is it permissible for me to take her back without referring to the Sharia?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

A wife should not seek divorce without a legitimate Shari excuse; otherwise, she will be deprived of the scent of Paradise. Regarding your statement: "You are divorced" twice after your wife's request, your intention is considered: if you intended only confirmation, then one divorce is binding upon you, provided there was no significant time interval between the two phrases. However, if you intended to initiate another divorce with the second phrase, or if you had no intention at all, then two divorces are binding upon you. As for the third time you were doubtful about, nothing is binding upon you regarding it, because the default is the continuation of the marital relationship. If one or two divorces have occurred, you can reconcile with your wife before her iddah (waiting period) ends, and you do not need her consent or to refer to a court. As for extreme anger, it does not prevent the occurrence of divorce unless it leads to the speaker not knowing what he is saying, and the default is that you were aware. Menstruation does not prevent divorce according to the majority of scholars.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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