Back to search
The question

Does a husband's talk about his feelings before marriage, if said to please his wife and not truly meant, constitute a hint of divorce?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce only occurs with an explicit pronouncement, or an ambiguous statement (kinayah) coupled with the intention of effecting divorce. As for words that do not carry the meaning of divorce, divorce does not occur by them. Therefore, none of what you mentioned effects a divorce; rather, these are [mere] whisperings [from Satan] that must be disregarded.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy