Does divorce occur by saying "you are divorced" after it has been made conditional on the wife going to a specific place, if the wife did not reach that place, and then the husband said "I divorced" intending the divorce to have occurred yesterday?

If a man makes his wife's divorce conditional upon her going to a specific place, and then he assumes she went there and divorces her, but it later becomes clear that she did not go there, the preponderant opinion is that the divorce does not take effect in this situation. This is supported by the Hanbali school of thought and some meticulous scholars, as divorce does not take effect if it is made conditional upon a cause that is later found to be absent.