What is the ruling regarding a husband divorcing his wife with the words: "You are talaq, talaq," and then with the words: "You are divorced," while he is under the influence of Captagon and suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder and doubt? And does the divorce take effect in both cases?
The occurrence of divorce is determined by the husband's state at the time of writing the two messages:
1. If he was unconscious: His divorce does not count, according to the preponderant opinion, because sanity is a prerequisite for accountability. 2. If he was conscious and aware: Intention of divorce: Divorce occurs simply by writing, because writing an explicit divorce is one of its kinayas (allusive expressions). No intention of divorce: It does not occur, whether he intended to threaten or otherwise. 3. Multiple divorces: If by the second word "divorce" he intended emphasis, then the total is two revocable divorces. If he intended to initiate another divorce, then the total is three divorces, which constitutes a major irrevocable divorce, and she is not lawful for him until after marrying another husband.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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