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The question

What is the ruling regarding a husband divorcing his wife with the words: "You are talaq, talaq," and then with the words: "You are divorced," while he is under the influence of Captagon and suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder and doubt? And does the divorce take effect in both cases?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The occurrence of divorce is determined by the husband's state at the time of writing the two messages:

1. If he was unconscious: His divorce does not count, according to the preponderant opinion, because sanity is a prerequisite for accountability. 2. If he was conscious and aware: Intention of divorce: Divorce occurs simply by writing, because writing an explicit divorce is one of its kinayas (allusive expressions). No intention of divorce: It does not occur, whether he intended to threaten or otherwise. 3. Multiple divorces: If by the second word "divorce" he intended emphasis, then the total is two revocable divorces. If he intended to initiate another divorce, then the total is three divorces, which constitutes a major irrevocable divorce, and she is not lawful for him until after marrying another husband.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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