Why was Christ, son of Mary, included in the verse, "They have taken their scholars and monks as lords besides Allah, and the Messiah, son of Mary," even though what is meant by "taking" is obedience in deeming things lawful and unlawful, whereas Christ was explicitly worshipped, and obeying him in what is lawful and unlawful is not objectionable?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Their worship of Jesus (peace be upon him) was in taking him as a lord to be worshipped and a son of God, and this is more dangerous than mere obedience in what is lawful and unlawful.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/88627
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 88627
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy